dreamer_easy (
dreamer_easy) wrote2012-07-09 07:17 pm
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Rather better today. Got physio'd, blundered about in the sunshine reading seventies feminist anthro-polol-ogy, lunched w/Jon, had truly epic massage. Ghastly ashy depression feelings continually trying to flare up, but I am watching like them a hawk and dealing out mighty crushings.
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http://dwellerinthelibrary.tumblr.com/
My postings at the mo are a mixture of Ancient Egypt and Korean pop stars. XD
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I've done well this week - been doing a lot of Ancient Greek in preparation for teaching at the annual summer school, and can feel my brain cranking into academic action (making me, of course, feel a bit sad at the discovery that it is so little used in the normal course of teaching!). And I have been looking after my roses. Shall I tell you something dreadful: I may worry more about the roses than the cats while I'm away! I guess it's because they're even more hopeless: one football kicked over by the neighbours, and the poor little things could peg out.
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I feel for your roses. The only vegetation I have ever successfully cultivated was a potato plant in a pot, which was cruelly annihilated by a fallen branch during a windstorm.
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Yes, the -os ending is usually masculine, but - as the article says (I am usually happy with Wikipedia!) - there are two-termination adjectives, which use -os for both masculine and feminine (the usual feminine endings are -a/-e and the neuter -on, though there's also the 3rd declension which is a massive spanner in the works but not relevant here).
BUT what you have here is not an adjective, but a participle, so this IS a masculine ending, as of course is the -os on Hermaphroditos. Greek, being a patriarchal society, of course uses the masculine as a default setting. Though it's neat in a way, because of course the Aphrodite part of the name is so incontrovertibly feminine that there is a delicious juxtaposition with the masculine ending, which is linguistically quite shivery.
Yes, 'itself' is rude. No Greek or Roman would ever use the neuter of a living being, particularly a human, unless they had actually used a word like 'creature' to dehumanise or generalise them into a concept deliberately first. In Catullus' version of the Attis story, he makes Attis' self-castration render him female - so he has masculine adjectives beforehand, and feminine ones after, although he is also described as a 'fake-woman'. But very few Classical scholars are open to the simple option of saying 'hirself' or going for a neutral phrasing such as 'self-exposing'. Sad but true.
I am so excited, though, about the thing you have not picked up on, which is the lack of reflexive pronoun in the Greek. In Latin it would be 'se' which is gender-neutral. But Greek has a middle voice (as well as the active and passive) which is used for reflexive actions and for actions which you do for your own benefit, which is the -men- bit of the ending of the participle.
*cough* Er, does this help?!
:) x
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If Hermaphroditos was exposing someone else, would s/he be, erm, anasyros?
There's a thing I keep coming across where "androgynous" is equated with "neuter", for example:
http://ikhet-sekhmet.livejournal.com/69316.html
http://ikhet-sekhmet.livejournal.com/57628.html
To what extent this reflects genuinely ancient ideas about gender idk. But it is interesting that Ancient Greek, like English, has no neuter pronoun suitable for human beings (other than "one", which isn't much help), making it difficult to even begin to discuss genders which don't fit the grammatical categories. (Fascinatingly, Sumerian lacks gender, but Akkadian, the language which replaced it, doesn't.)
This is all highly relevant to the novel I'm writing. Thank you! :D
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I think that the problem here is the tension between gender as in biological sex vs gender as in language. We cannot know, because we are way out of their mindset, exactly how ancient cultures saw this in their own languages (if a lion could talk, etc.), though the Catullus is an important clue. One (lol) also needs to remember that the Greeks, for instance, did not divide people up by sexuality - it was considered normal to be attracted to people you found attractive, regardless of their sex (the only abnormality was forcing your attentions on people who didn't want it) very healthy of them! So I do not think that one can say that Dionysus is asexual because he's bi-sexual (if I understood correctly where that page was going) - it's more that he, like Aphrodite, is so INCREDIBLY sexy and sexual, that he doesn't actually do it very often (but he does drink a lot) because the effects are so devastating.
As regards pronouns, I guess that the opposite of their view on sexuality is true - they never thought that someone might need a gender-neutral pronoun which was not inherently depersonalising.
Egyptian has genders, but you know more than I do about how that would work. When we neuter cats etc, we don't change their gender, and we certainly wouldn't with a human who had lost their primary sexual characteristics through accident or surgery unless se wished.
I will think more on this.
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I do not, btw, consider this usage to be anti-women, as such. If anything it is classist, referring to cheap prostitutes, and getting at their lack of gainful employment more than anything about them as women per se. There is presumably a similar usage for men of the same social group, it just so happens that the men I have been reading about are having sex with women.
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(This is me, btw, logged into one of my side journals. :)
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And this is doable in Greek and Latin, though the point is that of course Zeus/deus/Ju[piter]/De[meter] are already all the same word!!!
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http://books.google.com.au/books?id=cIiUL7dWqNIC&lpg=PP1&ots=LMFvNJlF_7&dq=%22walter%20burkert%22&pg=PA98#v=onepage&q=dione&f=false