dreamer_easy (
dreamer_easy) wrote2004-11-15 09:30 pm
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tehological insight
I am so pleased with the typo in the Subject line that I'm keeping it. Anyway, it suddenly occurred to me that the Crucifixion occurred because God promised not to repeat the Flood. Am I right?
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Did he? Seems the Romans were more than willing to turn him loose. He never really advocated overthrowing Roman rule (much to the annoyance of many of his own people, who thought that their messiah should do exactly that). He preached that it was perfectly okay to "render unto Caesar". He even hung out with tax collectors, and healed the daughter of one of the officials of the Roman occupation government. I think the Romans agreed to have him killed even though they knew (or their officials knew) that he wasn't really their enemy.
My (admittedly poor) understanding of the situation is that they did it to placate the high muckity-mucks in the Jewish community, whom Jesus *did* piss off (all those accusations of hypocrisy must have hurt). Said muckity-mucks didn't have the authority to have him killed, so they convinced the occupying government to do it for them, claiming that this "King of the Jews" was a threat to Roman rule as well as a blasphemer of the Jewish faith.
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The current thinking now, in Biblical scholarship, is that all that rigamaroll with Pilate et al probably didn't really happen. It was probably just a Centurion leader who had Jesus arrested for messing up things in the Temple during Passover (my best remembrance of what dad just said on the phone).
It'll be interesting when a "Scholars Edition" of the Bible is finally published. Assuming they can agree whether to put in the noncanonical books or not. ;-)
(For more information on the research being done by Biblical scholars today, check out the Westar Institute (http://www.westarinstitute.org) AKA the Jesus Seminar.)
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No?!?! Now that I think about it, my long-ago Catholic school religion classes probably don't count either... and they didn't have that happenin' music. I sure missed out. Oh well.
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1. This presupposes a degree of continuity (of genre, authorial intention etc) in the Bible which really isn't there.
2. Taking the story on its own terms, and assuming that it has internal consistency, you could argue that God's covenant with Noah limited His[*] later options -- but He was happy enough to use disaster afterwards as a punishment against specific groups, as at Babel, Sodom, Gomorrah etc. Nothing about the covenant commits Him to a later show of mercy as such.
3. I'd make a distinction between the Atonement -- which I tend to see as residing in the Incarnation -- and the Crucifixion, which (like
I'll admit that none of those answers comes from a terribly orthodox theological perspective, though.
[*] I'm not normally comfortable with calling God "he", but this is specifically the character in the Old Testament whom we're discussing...
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Uh-oh, my ignorance is showing. What's that?
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My take on this is that the person of Jesus united God and humanity in a literal "At-one-ment". ("Atonement" is a word with such a spectacularly transparent etymology that most people think it's a contrived and tacky pun made up by preachers.) Traditional evangelical theology talks about "penal substitutionary atonement", whereby the sins of humanity required punishment according to God's laws, and this could only be avoided by God substituting God's self in humanity's place. As you'll have gathered, I'm not keen on that interpretation.
(Sorry about the delay in replying. My employers have LiveJournal blocked on the grounds that all our students would spend their days arsing around on LiveJournal and never getting any work done, with the result that we librarians can't either.)
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Why does your ikon show a piano molesting a skull?
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It's Salvador Dali's Atmospheric Skull Sodomizing a Grand Piano.
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It seems in the Flood story that God thinks everyone but Noah & Co is a total write-off, and so sends the Flood to kill them. (This is very strange to write after playing Halo, by the way!)
On the other hand, lots later in the New Testament, God sees a whole bunch of evil and sin in the system again. This time, however, He (again, like the Infinitarian, I don't think of God as 'He', but we're talking about the OT) thinks that humankind might be worth saving, and sends Jesus down to do it.
So I don't think He's got caught out on his 'no more floods' thing. More that He sees more potential this time round, and acts accordingly.
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Ah! fanwanking the old rusty canon...
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In response to
As Peter said in the book of Acts, it may have been done by the hands of evil men, but it was God's will and purpose that Christ should suffer and die for the sins of the world.
Also, without the Crucifixion there could be no Resurrection, and it's the Resurrection most of all that was the beginning and is the great hope of the Christian faith. As Paul said, "If Christ has not been raised, you are still in your sins..." and according to him Christians are "more to be pitied than all men" for clinging to a dead leader and a dead faith.
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For that, any death would do -- and, since being mortal is a part of being human, Jesus' death in some form was inevitable. (I heard a very interesting talk which pointed out that, if he truly partook of the human condition of those around him, he stood a very substantial chance of being miscarried or dying in infancy.)
The way I see it, the lesson of the Crucifixion relates to human nature, not to God's.
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But I also do think that the prophecies of the Tanakh indicate that crucifixion specifically was the planned method by which Christ would die. "As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so must the Son of Man be lifted up," etc.
And the NT also appears to emphasize that a good deal more (and more important) things happened on the cross than just a man dying in the inevitable way that all men die. "No man takes my life from Me... I lay it down of My own accord."
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Basically, the Resurrection signified a number of things:
a) That Christ was sinless and divine, and therefore death could have no hold on him;
b) That Christ had completely finished the work of atonement for sin;
c) That God was completely satisfied with Christ's finished work;
d) That because Christ was raised from the dead, those who put their trust in Him and identify themselves with Him can also be confident that they too will be raised (which is the gist of the passage I linked above).
Does that make things any more clear?
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I think I get it - a symbolic, individual washing clean, rather than a literal, catastrophic one. (I'd never thought of the Flood as *washing* before. Obvious thing to miss.)
I figured that humanity had once more built up a critical mass of sin, and God decided, "Right, let's sort this out once and for all!" As He'd promised not to kill us, He was the only other sacrificial option.
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